I. Aplastic anemia
B, pure red aplastic anemia
C, hemolytic anemia
D, acute myeloid leukemia
E, acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Correct answer c
Answer analysis showed that the proportion of granular red in bone marrow decreased or inverted, and young red blood cells increased. The morphological characteristics of mature red blood cells are the same as those seen in peripheral blood. Once too many red blood cells are destroyed, the diagnosis of hemolytic anemia is established.
52, MHC refers to
First, transplantation antigen
B, allotype antigen
C, major histocompatibility antigen
major histocompatibility complex
E. human leukocyte antigen
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
53. Xiake-Leiden crystal can be found in
First, tuberculosis
B, paragonimiasis
C, lung abscess
D, bronchiectasis
E, empyema
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
54, to confirm whether Staphylococcus aureus is pathogenic, should check
Catalase
oxidase
urease
D, plasma coagulase
E, lecithin enzyme
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
55, understand the whole picture of serum protein valuable determination method is
First, serum protein electrophoresis
B, total protein quantification
Albumin quantification
D, the determination of special protein
Lipoprotein electrophoresis
Correct answer a
This topic studies the clinical significance of serum protein electrophoresis. Electrophoresis of serum protein is still a valuable method to understand the whole picture of serum protein, especially for the clinical diagnosis of some diseases (such as liver disease, nephropathy, multiple myeloma and some autoimmune diseases).
56. What kind of bacteria does VI antigen belong to?
A, Enterobacteriaceae bacterial antigen
B, protein composition of staphylococcal cell wall
Surface antigen of salmonella
D, nuclear protein antigen
Streptococcus surface antigen
Correct answer c
There are three antigens of Salmonella: Vi, M and S. The Vi antigen is destroyed by heating at 60℃ for 30 min or carbolic acid treatment, and its existence can prevent O antigen from agglutinating with corresponding antibodies.
57, streptococcus pneumoniae identification test error is
First, bile dissolution was positive.
B, inulin fermentation test was positive.
C, mice are sensitive to Streptococcus pneumoniae
D, capsule expansion test was negative.
E, optochin sensitivity test was positive.
Correct answer d
Capsule swelling test is a complex formed by specific antiserum and capsule antigen of corresponding bacteria, which is used to detect Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and so on.
58, to prevent and inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria is called
First, disinfection
B, anti-corrosion
C, disinfection
D, infertility
E, aseptic operation
Correct answer b
Disinfection is a method to kill pathogens on objects, not necessarily bacterial spores and non-pathogenic microorganisms. Anti-corrosion is a method to prevent or inhibit the growth and reproduction of microorganisms, which generally do not die. Sterilization is a method to kill all microorganisms on objects. Sterility is the result of sterilization, and aseptic operation is the operation technology to prevent microorganisms from entering the body or objects.
59.CK-MM mainly exists.
First, brain tissue
B, liver
C, skeletal muscle
D, myocardium
E, red blood cells
Correct answer c
There are three isoenzymes of creatine kinase, namely CK-MB, CK-BB and CK-MM. CK-BB mainly exists in brain, kidney, prostate and uterus. CK-MM mainly exists in skeletal muscle and myocardium. CK-MB mainly exists in myocardium.
60. Which feature of bone marrow smear is the most valuable for the diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
First, eosinophilia.
B, lymphocyte proliferation
C, non-hematopoietic cell increase
R-S cells are visible.
E, the number of fibroblasts increased.
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
6 1, the examination results of patients with plasma cell leukemia are as follows
First, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate increased.
The urine Ben-lipoprotein test was negative.
C, serum α -microglobulin increased.
D, serum lactate dehydrogenase content increased.
E. abnormal immunoglobulin.
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
62, anemia patients, blood membrane red blood cells of different sizes, pale center, serum transferrin saturation 14%. The most likely diagnosis is
First, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B, aplastic anemia
Sideroblastic anemia
D, iron deficiency anemia
E. megaloblastic anemia
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
63. Which of the following is related to the pathological changes of white blood cells?
First, Cabo ring
Dulles corpuscle
C, pericorpuscles
D, chromatid body
E, basophilic stippling particles
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
64. The center of the nucleus is round, the chromatin is massive, the nucleoli disappears, and the cytoplasm is polychromatic, which accords with this feature.
First, the original red blood cells
Premature red blood cells
C, young red blood cells
D, advanced red blood cells
reticulocyte
Correct answer c
Answer analysis
65. The recommended specimen types for blood lipid determination are as follows
First, EDTA anticoagulant plasma
B, serum
C, heparin anticoagulant plasma
Sodium oxalate anticoagulant plasma
E, citric acid anticoagulant plasma
Correct answer b
Both serum and plasma samples are suitable for the determination of blood lipids and lipoproteins, but now all serum samples are advocated.
66. The results of normal glucose tolerance are as follows
First, fasting blood glucose is 7 ~ 8 mmol/
B, blood sugar reached its peak at 120min.
C, peak blood sugar >; 7.8 mmol/L
D and 2h blood glucose levels
E, glucose peak ≥10.0mmol/l.
Correct answer d
Answer analysis examined the clinical significance of OGTT results and 2-hour blood glucose level.
67. Which of the following does not meet the hemogram characteristics of patients with myelofibrosis?
A, generally moderate anemia, severe anemia can occur in the late stage or accompanied by hemolysis.
B, white blood cells often increase.
C, platelet increase or decrease
The appearance of granular cells and red blood cells.
E, ordinary granulocyte
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
68, in the bacterial growth curve, the fastest increase in the number of bacteria is
I. Lag period
B. Logarithmic period
C, stable period
D. recession period
E, logarithmic period and stable period
Correct answer b
The growth of bacteria is divided into four stages, in which the logarithmic growth period is rapid, the bacteria reproduce fastest and the morphology is the most typical, so it is often used for observation and identification.
69, the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia is the most specific index
First, the number of white blood cells increased significantly.
B, blood smear such as immature granulocytes.
C, the proportion of bone marrow granulosa cells increased.
D, the activity of neutrophil alkaline phosphatase decreased.
E, Phl chromosome positive
Correct answer e
Ph 1 chromosome positive is a specific sign of CML.
70, bacteria check the fastest detection method is
First, the electron microscope examination
B, animal experiments
C. isolation and culture
D, serological test
E, direct smear microscopy
Correct answer e
Morphological examination of bacteria is one of the most important basic methods in bacterial examination. Microscopic examination can not only quickly know whether there are bacteria in the sample and the approximate number of bacteria, but also help to preliminarily identify and classify pathogenic bacteria according to cell morphology, structure and staining.
7 1 and general bacterial culture 1 ~ 4h are the stages for bacteria to adapt to the new environment and are in the growth curve.
I. Static period
B, lag period
C, logarithmic proliferation period
D, stable period
E. fading period
Correct answer b
The lag period of solution analysis is the adaptation period of bacteria after entering a new environment, which is generally 1 ~ 4h.
72. Which of the following changes is the toxic change of neutrophils?
A, orr corpuscles appear
B, Mayer-Hershey malformation
C. Pelger-Hutt malformation
D and dole corpuscles
Alder-Riley malformation
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
73, radioimmunoassay is not used for determination.
First, hormones
Trace protein
C, bacteria
D, tumor markers
E. medicine
Correct answer c
Answer analysis
74, agglutination reaction judgment result is in
A, at the beginning of the first stage of antigen-antibody reaction
B when the first stage of antigen-antibody reaction is completed.
C, at the beginning of the second stage of antigen-antibody reaction
D, when the second stage of antigen-antibody reaction is completed.
E. judge the result immediately after adding the antibody.
Correct answer d
Answer analysis
75, the most important feature of promyelocytic is
A, the cytoplasm is dark blue
B, the cell body has a large diameter
C, the nuclear deviation is large, and the chromatin is meticulous.
D, nucleoli is clearly visible.
The cytoplasm contains nonspecific particles with different sizes.
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
76. The following statement about M protein is correct.
I. Various physical and chemical properties
B, strong immune activity
C, malignant proliferation from T cells
D, most of them have no immune activity.
E, only IgG, IgM or IgA.
Correct answer d
An abnormal monoclonal immunoglobulin produced by abnormal proliferation of M protein and B lymphocytes or plasma cells, whose amino acid composition and sequence are very uniform, and most of them have no immune activity.
77, the following meet the characteristics of conjugated bilirubin is
A, easy to enter cells, resulting in cytotoxicity
B, soluble in water, once in the blood can be discharged from the kidney.
C, combined with albumin and transported.
D, adding methanol to react with diazotization reagent.
E, hemolytic jaundice can be significantly aggravated.
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
78. In acute hepatitis, which LDH isozyme activity increases?
a、LDH 1
b、LDH2
c、LDH3
d、LDH4
e、LDH5
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
79, acquired pure red cell aplastic anemia, which of the following tests is wrong?
I. Progressive decrease of hemoglobin and red blood cells
B, the proliferation of bone marrow nucleated cells decreased.
C, the number of reticulocytes decreased.
D, white blood cell count and platelet count are normal or slightly decreased.
E. normal cell anemia.
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
80, can cause glomerulonephritis pathogens are
First, staphylococcus
B. Escherichia coli
streptococcus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct answer c
Allergic diseases caused by streptococcal infection mainly include rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. The former are arthritis and heart disease.
8 1, hemolytic jaundice, patients may appear.
A, urine bilirubin negative, urine urobilinogen positive.
Urinary bilirubin is positive and urine urobilinogen is negative.
C, urinary bilirubin positive, urinary bilirubin positive.
D, urine bilirubin negative, urine urobilinogen negative.
E, urinary bilirubin is negative, urinary bilirubin is negative.
Correct answer a
The analysis of the answers showed that the patients with hemolytic jaundice had negative urinary bilirubin and positive urinary urobilinogen.
82. The anticoagulant that has the least influence on blood cell count is
Disodium EDTA
Dipotassium ethylene diamine tetraacetate
heparin
sodium oxalate
E. trisodium citrate
Correct answer b
The solution analysis shows that EDTA-K2 has good solubility and little influence on platelet count and platelet morphology.
2. The following questions have a * * * with a stem. There are several sub-questions under each stem, and there are five alternative answers: A, B, C, D and E. Please choose a correct answer.
The patient is a 32-year-old female. Dizziness and fatigue 1 month, numbness of hands and feet for 2 weeks, peripheral blood test, HB 70g/L; RBC 2× 10 12/L； WBC 6× 109/L； MCV 120fl，MCH 40pg，MCHC 350g/L
83, the patient's most likely diagnosis is
I. Chronic infectious anemia
Vitamin B 12 deficiency anemia
C, iron deficiency anemia
D, hemolytic anemia
E, aplastic anemia
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
84, the patient's diagnostic test is
I. Determination of parameters of peripheral red blood cells
B, bone marrow examination
Cytochemical staining
D, bilirubin determination
Ham test
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
85, the patient's bone marrow red system proliferation cells are
A, small cell late young red is dominant.
B, the small cell type is mainly reddish.
C, the positive cell type late young red is dominant.
D, the type of positive cells is mainly reddish.
It is mainly composed of megaloblastic cells at different stages.
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
86. What disease does this disease need to be differentiated from?
Anemia caused by folic acid deficiency
B, iron deficiency anemia
C, erythroleukemia (erythroleukemia stage)
D, hemolytic anemia
Sideroblastic anemia
Correct answer c
Answer analysis
A 53-year-old female patient was admitted to hospital with jaundice, diffuse epigastric pain and high fever. The urine is dark brown and the feces are gray. Physical examination: jaundice, right quarter rib tenderness, large liver.
87. The most likely diagnosis of this patient is
First, hemolytic jaundice
B. Hepatocellular jaundice
C, obstructive jaundice
D, liver cirrhosis
E, acute pancreatitis
Correct answer c
Answer analysis
88, to help patients with clinical diagnosis of inspection items do not include
A, serum bilirubin determination
B, urine bilirubin qualitative experiment
C, determination of serum alkaline phosphatase
D, detecting serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase.
E, determination of serum amylase
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
89, the patient's test results are the most unlikely.
A, serum total bilirubin increased, and urine bilirubin was strongly positive.
B, serum conjugated bilirubin increased, and blood ALT was normal.
C, serum amylase is normal or slightly elevated.
D, serum ALP increased and urine urobilinogen disappeared.
E, serum γ-GT is normal.
Correct answer e
Answer analysis
The patient is a 33-year-old male with intermittent fever for 2 weeks, loss of appetite and defecation 3-4 times a day. Physical examination: red maculopapules can be seen on the chest, and the spleen can be touched under the left costal margin. Laboratory examination: the white blood cells in peripheral blood are low, and the results of widal test are O 1: 80, H H 1: 160+060, A 1:320: 320, B 1:40: 40.
90. According to the above symptoms and examination, the patient was initially diagnosed as
First, typhoid fever
B. Paratyphoid fever A
C, paratyphoid B.
Typhoid and paratyphoid C.
E. typhus
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
9 1, the most reliable diagnosis method is
First, direct microscopic examination
B. Isolation and culture
C, biochemical identification
D, identification of enterotoxin
E, serological diagnosis
Correct answer b
Answer analysis
Three, the following provides a number of groups of questions, each group of questions with five alternative answers listed in front of the question. Please choose an answer that is closely related to the question.
A.BSP excretion test
B. endogenous creatinine clearance rate
C. concentration and dilution tests
D. polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons clearance rate
E.ICG excretion test
92, reflect the glomerular filtration function test is as follows
Correct answer b
93, reflect the renal blood flow test as follows
Correct answer d
94, reflect the renal tubular function test as follows
Correct answer c
A. separation tank
B. Mature pool
C. oil storage tank
D. circulating pool
E. Edge pool
95, middle-aged granulocytes belong to
Correct answer a
96, peripheral blood cell count lobular granulocyte belongs to
Correct answer d
97, late promyelocytic belongs to
Correct answer b
A. eosinophilia
B. changes in neutrophil toxicity
C. Abnormal lymphocyte increase
D. basophilic
E. rod-shaped object
98, purulent cocci infection can occur.
Correct answer b
99, infectious mononucleosis can appear.
Correct answer c
100, acute myeloid leukemia may occur.
Correct answer e